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hard question about the human conscience
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Posted by: Frederik
Hi!
I really need some help answering this question.
You know, my brother came up with very hard questions and I couldn't answer them.
Here it comes:
1)He said that it has been proven that man does not really have a free will. [I have read about these "tests" and think it's ridiculous] What would you say about this?
2)He said there is no good and evil. He said that morals and the conscience are man-made. I said this is not true and that the conscience and the ability to know right from wrong is God given. I mean it is God given,right?
And then he said that people which had an accident and suffered brain injury suddenly changed from being righteous to being criminal and having no morals at all.
He said that this proves that morals and the conscience are not God given.
what to reply to this? 
Where exactly is the human conscience? Is it in our brain (flesh) or is it in the human spirit? How can you explain that human behavior can be changed by a brain injury?
Posted by: StarChilde
Proof of free will: Deu 30:19 I call heaven and earth to record this day against you, that I have set before you life and death, blessing and cursing: therefore choose life, that both thou and thy seed may live:
You see in this verse, God gives a choice to choose, He does not command one to do one thing or another. He does say the consequences of choosing life though, and it is life and not death.
Rom 1:18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness; Rom 1:19 Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath showed it unto them. Rom 1:20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse: Rom 1:21 Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened.
The above verses, show that even those who are not Christians, are given the knowledge of what is right and what is wrong. Maybe the below explanation will help you to understand it more.
Rom 1:19 - Because - The apostle proceeds to show how it was that the pagan hindered the truth by their iniquity. This he does by showing that the truth might be known by the works of creation; and that nothing but their iniquity prevented it.
That which may be known of God - That which is "knowable" concerning God. The expression implies that there may be many things concerning God which cannot be known. But there are also many things which may be ascertained. Such are his existence, and many of his attributes, his power, and wisdom, and justice, etc. The object of the apostle was not to say that every thing pertaining to God could be known by them, or that they could have as clear a view of him as if they had possessed a revelation. We must interpret the expression according to the object which he had in view. That was to show that so much might be known of God as to prove that they had no excuse for their crimes; or that God would be just in punishing them for their deeds. For this, it was needful only that his existence and his justice, or his determination to punish sin, should be known; and this, the apostle affirms, was known among them, and had been from the creation of the world. This expression. therefore, is not to be pressed as implying that they knew all that could be known about God, or that they knew as much as they who had a revelation; but that they knew enough to prove that they had no excuse for their sins.
Is manifest - Is known; is understood.
In them - "Among" them. So the preposition "in" is often used. It means that they had this knowledge; or it had been communicated to them. The great mass of the pagan world was indeed ignorant of the true God; but their leaders, or their philosophers, had this knowledge. But this was not true of the mass, or body of the people. Still it was true that this knowledge was in the possession of man, or was "among" the pagan world. and would have spread, had it not been for the love of sin.God hath showed it to them - Joh_1:9(That was the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world.)
He had endowed them with reason and conscience Rom_2:14-15;(Rom 2:14 For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves: Rom 2:15 Which show the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another: )
he had made them capable of seeing and investigating his works; he had spread before them the proofs of his wisdom, and goodness, and power, and had thus given them the means of learning his perfections and will.
Posted by: Frederik
He does not say that there might not be a God.
He says there might be a God, but he also says that nobody can know it.
And he says that nobody can know how to interpret the bible.
He says that the bible could also be meant metaphorical.
So even if he decided that there is a God then he would still not really believe the bible. 
But do you really think that in our times a human can still see that there must be a God in spite of all the lies which are out there?