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Originally Posted by Frederik
This confuses me. In the OT God becomes angry at them after he led them from Egypt and then he wants to destroy them but Moses is able to change God's mind. But I don't understand how God could even want to do this since this would have meant that he would have broken his promise with Abraham, right?
Does this mean if Moses had not pleaded God would have broken his word? I thought God could not even do this?! ![]() |
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Originally Posted by The Anointed One
Frederik, give me the Chapter and verses that you read, and I'll explain it to you.
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Originally Posted by Christian Commando
You forget easy my boy. "All things are possible in God". I actually see this twice from god towards man. 1- When He promises never to try and destroy them with another flood- (Rainbow as a sign of covenant for that), and 2- repenting of His rightceous anger over His children's falable stupidity during the Exodus.
Are you trying to limit God from repenting of His own rightceous anger when necessary? The big difference is, god admitted this to Moses and corrected Himself. He did not put it off on others like falable humans like to blame others. God Bless!! |